1. The author briefly mentions that the French
‘have a long tradition of classical tragedy which led them to believe that the
“norms” of literature and theater are antithetical to melodrama’ (Williams,
19), while Americans have different norms that led to ‘revealing moral good in
a world where virtue has become hard to read’ (Williams, 19). What exactly are
the ‘American norms’ that Williams is referring to? Moreover, did such
differences in norms cause melodrama to manifest differently in modern French
theater and film culture? Is it similar to or very different from that of American
culture?
2. Williams notes that in the process of proving
the virtue of victim hero, ‘the transmutation of bodily suffering into virtue
is a topos of western culture that goes back to Christian iconography’
(Williams, 29). Earlier in the text, it was established that there was a ‘waning
of Calvinist morality in America’ (Williams, 20). Are there other
sources/traces of Christianity that can be observed in melodrama? If so, what
are their roles?
3. Williams establishes a relationship between
realism and melodrama, that ‘historically, melodramatic and realistic dramas
developed during the same period in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries.
They have been mutually influential.’ (Williams, 38). Realism indeed had a
profound influence on melodrama as a ‘renewed truth and stylistic innovation’
(Williams, 39). On the other hand, how did melodrama influence realism and its
development? Were such influences favorable for development of realistic drama?
Or did they impede such progress of realistic drama?
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